CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Questions: More Practice Questions

36 free, exam-style CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) practice questions covering More Practice Questions. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. Which of the following mobile device security features allows a user to remotely locate and erase their device if it is lost or stolen?

Explanation: Remote wipe and remote lock are features (often part of Find My iPhone or Android's Find My Device) that allow a user to secure a lost or stolen device by erasing its data or locking it to prevent unauthorized access. Learn more.

Q2. Which of the following biometric authentication methods is commonly used for unlocking smartphones?

Explanation: Fingerprint scanning is a widely adopted biometric authentication method on smartphones due to its convenience and relative security. Many modern phones integrate fingerprint sensors into the screen or on the power button. Learn more.

Q3. What is the primary purpose of Mobile Device Management (MDM) software in an enterprise environment?

Explanation: MDM solutions allow IT administrators to configure security policies, deploy applications, track inventory, and remotely wipe or lock devices, ensuring corporate data is protected on both company-owned and employee-owned (BYOD) mobile devices. Learn more.

Q4. A tablet is enrolled in MDM. What can administrators commonly enforce remotely?

Explanation: Mobile device management can enforce security settings such as screen locks, encryption, and remote wipe. Learn more.

Q5. According to CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology, what is the step that should be performed immediately AFTER establishing a theory of probable cause?

Explanation: After identifying the problem and establishing a theory, the next logical step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is to test that theory. If the theory is not confirmed, a new theory must be established or the problem escalated. Learn more.

Q6. According to CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology, after you have implemented a plan of action and verified full system functionality, what is the final step to ensure proper resolution and future prevention?

Explanation: The final step in CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology is to document the problem, the actions taken to resolve it, and the successful outcome. This creates a knowledge base for future issues and improves efficiency. Learn more.

Q7. According to CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology, after you have implemented a plan of action and verified full system functionality, what is the final step to ensure proper resolution and future prevention?

Explanation: The final step in CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology is to document the problem, the actions taken to resolve it, and the successful outcome. This creates a knowledge base for future issues and improves efficiency. Learn more.

Q8. What is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Explanation: The first step is always to Identify the Problem. This involves questioning the user, identifying changes, and backing up data before making changes. Learn more.

Q9. A user reports that their mobile phone's battery drains much faster than usual, even with light usage. Which of the following is a common cause for this issue?

Explanation: A poorly optimized or malfunctioning application running in the background can consume significant CPU resources and network data, leading to rapid battery drain. Checking battery usage by app in settings can help identify such apps. Learn more.

Q10. A user reports that the GPS on their smartphone is frequently inaccurate or unable to get a lock. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a cause?

Explanation: While a nearly full storage device can cause general performance issues, it's least likely to directly impact GPS accuracy. Being indoors, having airplane mode on (which disables radios including GPS), or outdated A-GPS data are more common culprits. Learn more.

Q11. After connecting a new laptop dock, external displays are not detected. What should be checked first?

Explanation: Modern docks often require compatible firmware, drivers, and supported display modes to drive external monitors. Learn more.

Q12. A user reports a laptop battery drains rapidly after many charge cycles. What is the most likely explanation?

Explanation: Rechargeable batteries lose capacity over time and may need replacement after many cycles. Learn more.

Q13. What does the acronym RAID stand for?

Explanation: RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks. It's a data storage virtualization technology that combines multiple physical drives into one logical unit for performance improvement, redundancy, or both. Various RAID levels offer different balances between fault tolerance, speed, and capacity. Learn more.

Q14. Which external storage connection was designed to carry SATA signaling outside the computer case?

Explanation: eSATA extends SATA connectivity to external drives while preserving SATA-style storage communication. Learn more.

Q15. Which statement best describes NVMe storage?

Explanation: NVMe is optimized for flash storage over PCIe and provides high queue depth and low latency. Learn more.

Q16. A technician is about to work inside a computer case. Which of the following is the MOST important safety precaution to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

Explanation: Using an anti-static wrist strap properly grounded to the computer's metal chassis helps to equalize the electrical potential between the technician and the computer components, preventing ESD damage. Learn more.

Q17. What is the primary purpose of change management procedures in an IT environment?

Explanation: Change management aims to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to control IT infrastructure, in order to minimize the number and impact of any related incidents upon service. Learn more.

Q18. When working inside a computer case, which of the following is the BEST way to prevent Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) damage to components?

Explanation: Using an anti-static wrist strap properly grounded (e.g., connected to an unpainted metal part of the computer chassis) is the most effective way to continuously equalize your body's static charge with the computer, preventing ESD. Learn more.

Q19. A user reports their computer is running very slowly. Which Windows utility would be BEST to initially check for applications consuming excessive CPU or memory resources?

Explanation: Task Manager (specifically the Processes or Details tab) provides a real-time view of running applications and background processes, along with their CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. This helps identify resource-heavy applications. Learn more.

Q20. A user encounters a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) in Windows with an error message like 'IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL'. This type of error MOST commonly indicates an issue with:

Explanation: The 'IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL' BSOD error typically points to a problem with a device driver, system service, or incompatible hardware, often related to memory access violations. Faulty RAM can also cause this. Learn more.

Q21. A Windows computer is unable to boot and displays an error related to a missing or corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR). Which command in the Windows Recovery Environment can be used to attempt to repair the MBR?

Explanation: The `bootrec /fixmbr` command writes a new MBR to the system partition. This can resolve issues where the MBR has been corrupted or overwritten. It's typically run from the Windows Recovery Environment. Learn more.

Q22. A user is experiencing no network connectivity. They have checked physical connections. Which command-line utility would be MOST useful for checking if their computer has a valid IP address?

Explanation: `ipconfig` (on Windows) or `ifconfig`/`ip addr` (on Linux/macOS) displays the current TCP/IP network configuration values, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. This is the first step to verify network layer configuration. Learn more.

Q23. A 2.4 GHz wireless network is slow in an apartment building. What is a likely cause?

Explanation: The 2.4 GHz band has fewer non-overlapping channels and is often congested in dense environments. Learn more.

Q24. Which cable tester result indicates wires are connected to the wrong pins at one end?

Explanation: A miswire result means conductors are not terminated to matching pins according to the expected wiring standard. Learn more.

Q25. A user reports their laptop casing is bulging near the keyboard and the trackpad is difficult to click. What is the MOST likely cause and recommended action?

Explanation: A bulging laptop casing, especially around the battery area, is a strong indicator of a swollen lithium-ion battery. This is a safety hazard and the device should not be used. The battery needs to be replaced carefully according to safety procedures. Learn more.

Q26. A laptop user reports that several individual keys on their keyboard are no longer responding. Which of the following is the most efficient repair or replacement for this issue?

Explanation: For unresponsive individual keys on a laptop, the most efficient and direct repair is typically to replace the entire keyboard assembly, as individual keys are often difficult to repair or replace separately. Learn more.

Q27. A laptop user reports that several individual keys on their keyboard are no longer responding. Which of the following is the most efficient repair or replacement for this issue?

Explanation: For unresponsive individual keys on a laptop, the most efficient and direct repair is typically to replace the entire keyboard assembly, as individual keys are often difficult to repair or replace separately. Learn more.

Q28. A user wants to configure two hard drives for maximum performance without any data redundancy. Which RAID level should be implemented?

Explanation: RAID 0 (striping) writes data across multiple drives simultaneously, significantly increasing read/write performance. However, it offers no fault tolerance; if one drive fails, all data is lost. Learn more.

Q29. A user wants to configure a storage solution that provides both high performance (striping) and data redundancy (mirroring) using at least four drives. Which RAID level BEST meets these requirements?

Explanation: RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0). It requires a minimum of four drives and provides both improved performance due to striping and data redundancy due to mirroring. Learn more.

Q30. A user wants to share their mobile device's cellular data connection with their laptop. Which feature should they enable on the mobile device?

Explanation: Mobile hotspot (Wi-Fi tethering) or Bluetooth tethering allows a mobile device to act as a wireless access point, sharing its cellular internet connection with other devices like laptops. Learn more.

Q31. A user wants to share their mobile device's cellular data connection with their laptop. Which feature should they enable on the mobile device?

Explanation: Mobile hotspot (Wi-Fi tethering) or Bluetooth tethering allows a mobile device to act as a wireless access point, sharing its cellular internet connection with other devices like laptops. Learn more.

Q32. Which cloud characteristic describes the ability of cloud computing resources to scale up or down automatically based on demand, without manual intervention?

Explanation: Rapid elasticity is a key cloud characteristic that means computing resources can be quickly and automatically provisioned, scaled up, or scaled down to meet fluctuating demands, ensuring optimal performance and cost efficiency. Learn more.

Q33. Which cloud computing deployment model combines two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (e.g., private and public) that remain unique entities but are bound together by standardized technology, enabling data and application portability?

Explanation: A hybrid cloud combines elements of both public and private clouds, allowing organizations to leverage the scalability of public clouds while maintaining sensitive data or critical applications in a private environment. Objective 4.1 covers 'Common cloud models' including 'Hybrid cloud'. Learn more.

Q34. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a first responder in an IT security incident?

Explanation: The first responder's initial actions are crucial. They should identify the scope of the incident, take steps to contain it (e.g., disconnect from network if appropriate), preserve evidence, and report it according to the organization's incident response plan. Learn more.

Q35. Which Windows command-line utility can be used to display detailed wireless network adapter information, including profile names and security settings?

Explanation: The `netsh wlan show profiles` command lists all the wireless network profiles stored on the Windows computer. Adding a profile name and `key=clear` (e.g., `netsh wlan show profile name="MyWiFi" key=clear`) can show the stored password (requires admin rights). Learn more.

Q36. According to CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology, what is the step that should be performed AFTER a plan of action to resolve the problem has been implemented and the solution tested?

Explanation: After implementing the solution and verifying full system functionality (including implementing preventative measures if applicable), the final step is to document the findings, actions taken, and the outcome. This helps in future troubleshooting and knowledge sharing. Learn more.

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