CompTIA CySA+ Practice Questions: Security Operations

64 free, exam-style CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) practice questions covering Security Operations. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. Which tool is BEST for analyzing network traffic for malicious activity? (Q-627fe0)

Explanation: Wireshark is a packet analyzer for deep traffic inspection. Learn more.

Q2. What does a SIEM primarily help with? (Q-924431)

Explanation: SIEM tools aggregate and correlate logs for threat detection. Learn more.

Q3. Which protocol is commonly exploited in DDoS amplification attacks? (Q-627fe4)

Explanation: DNS amplification abuses open resolvers. Learn more.

Q4. What is the PRIMARY goal of threat hunting? (Q-924435)

Explanation: Threat hunting proactively searches for adversaries. Learn more.

Q5. What is the PRIMARY use of NetFlow data? (Q-924437)

Explanation: NetFlow provides metadata for traffic analysis. Learn more.

Q6. What does EDR stand for? (Q-924438)

Explanation: EDR monitors endpoints for threats. Learn more.

Q7. Which type of security control is a firewall? (Q-924441)

Explanation: Firewalls are technical controls that filter network traffic. Learn more.

Q8. Which tool would you use to scan for open ports? (Q-924444)

Explanation: Nmap is a network scanning tool that identifies open ports. Learn more.

Q9. Which of the following is an example of a technical control? (Q-924453)

Explanation: Firewall rules are technical controls that enforce security policies. Learn more.

Q10. What does SOAR stand for in security operations? (Q-627ffa)

Explanation: SOAR platforms automate and streamline incident response. Learn more.

Q11. Which tool would you use to analyze logs for security events? (Q-924462)

Explanation: SIEM tools aggregate and analyze logs for threat detection. Learn more.

Q12. Which of the following BEST describes a false positive in security monitoring? (Q-924470)

Explanation: False positives are legitimate activities mistakenly classified as threats. Learn more.

Q13. What does the 'S' in 'SOAR' stand for? (Q-628009)

Explanation: SOAR = Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response. Learn more.

Q14. Which protocol is used for network device logging? (Q-924472)

Explanation: Syslog is a standard for message logging across network devices. Learn more.

Q15. Which tool is used for network intrusion detection? (Q-924477)

Explanation: Snort is an open-source NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System). Learn more.

Q16. Which Windows Event Log tracks authentication attempts? (Q-924484)

Explanation: The Security log records authentication and authorization events. Learn more.

Q17. Which Linux command lists all open network connections? (Q-924485)

Explanation: netstat -tuln shows listening ports and active connections. Learn more.

Q18. What does UEBA stand for in security analytics? (Q-628023)

Explanation: UEBA detects anomalies in user/entity behavior. Learn more.

Q19. Which Windows command displays active TCP connections? (Q-924493)

Explanation: netstat -ano shows active connections and process IDs. Learn more.

Q20. What does FIM stand for in security monitoring? (Q-628031)

Explanation: FIM detects unauthorized changes to critical files. Learn more.

Q21. Which Windows command lists scheduled tasks? (Q-924511)

Explanation: schtasks displays scheduled tasks, which attackers often abuse for persistence. Learn more.

Q22. Which Windows command lists scheduled tasks? (Q-924529)

Explanation: schtasks displays scheduled tasks, which attackers abuse for persistence. Learn more.

Q23. Which Windows command lists scheduled tasks? (Q-924539)

Explanation: schtasks displays scheduled tasks, which attackers abuse for persistence. Learn more.

Q24. Which Windows command lists scheduled tasks? (Q-924549)

Explanation: schtasks displays scheduled tasks, which attackers abuse for persistence. Learn more.

Q25. What does a sudden increase in failed SSH login attempts from diverse IP addresses indicate?

Explanation: Password spraying targets multiple accounts with common passwords across an organization. Learn more.

Q26. What is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions?

Explanation: EDR solutions provide continuous monitoring and advanced threat detection on endpoints. Learn more.

Q27. Which Windows Event Log would contain information about service failures?

Explanation: The System log records service start/stop events and failures. Learn more.

Q28. Which technique would be MOST effective for detecting DNS tunneling?

Explanation: DNS tunneling often uses unusually long queries or high query volumes. Learn more.

Q29. When reviewing NetFlow data, what would a spike in traffic to TCP port 445 indicate?

Explanation: Port 445 is used by SMB and is a common target for wormable exploits. Learn more.

Q30. What does a SIEM alert for 'unusual process spawning from Office applications' indicate?

Explanation: Malicious Office macros often spawn additional processes like PowerShell or cmd. Learn more.

Q31. Which technique would be MOST effective for detecting living-off-the-land binaries?

Explanation: Behavioral analysis can detect when legitimate tools are used maliciously. Learn more.

Q32. When analyzing packet captures, what would a large number of ICMP Echo Requests indicate?

Explanation: Excessive ICMP requests may indicate reconnaissance or flood attacks. Learn more.

Q33. What does the presence of unexpected WMI event subscriptions indicate?

Explanation: Attackers use WMI subscriptions for persistence and execution. Learn more.

Q34. Which technique would detect C2 traffic in encrypted channels?

Explanation: TLS fingerprinting can identify malicious C2 without decryption. Learn more.

Q35. What is the PRIMARY purpose of threat intelligence in a SIEM?

Explanation: Threat intel enriches alerts with information about known malicious indicators. Learn more.

Q36. When reviewing auth logs, what would failed NTLM followed by successful Kerberos indicate?

Explanation: This pattern suggests an attacker found valid credentials through spraying. Learn more.

Q37. What does a SIEM alert for 'long PowerShell commands' indicate?

Explanation: Attackers often use long, obfuscated PowerShell commands. Learn more.

Q38. Which technique would detect DLL side-loading?

Explanation: Examining DLL load paths can reveal side-loading attempts. Learn more.

Q39. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a deception technology solution?

Explanation: Deception tech lures attackers into revealing themselves. Learn more.

Q40. When analyzing logs, what does Event ID 4672 followed by PsExec indicate?

Explanation: This sequence suggests privilege escalation and lateral movement. Learn more.

Q41. What does a spike in DNS queries for random subdomains indicate?

Explanation: Domain Generation Algorithms create random domains for C2 communication. Learn more.

Q42. Which log would be MOST useful for investigating web app brute force attacks?

Explanation: Web server logs record authentication attempts and HTTP status codes. Learn more.

Q43. What is the PRIMARY benefit of canary tokens?

Explanation: Canary tokens trigger alerts when accessed, revealing intrusions. Learn more.

Q44. What does a spike in GPO modifications indicate?

Explanation: Attackers with domain admin often modify GPOs for persistence. Learn more.

Q45. Which log source would be MOST valuable for insider threats?

Explanation: DLP logs track attempts to access or transfer sensitive data. Learn more.

Q46. Which technique would detect beaconing malware?

Explanation: Beaconing creates regular callbacks to C2 servers. Learn more.

Q47. What does unexpected scheduled tasks with obfuscated commands indicate?

Explanation: Attackers use scheduled tasks for persistence with hidden commands. Learn more.

Q48. What is the PRIMARY benefit of network segmentation?

Explanation: Segmentation limits how far an attacker can spread. Learn more.

Q49. What does a high volume of requests to pastebin.com indicate?

Explanation: Attackers often use paste sites to exfiltrate small data amounts. Learn more.

Q50. What does 'unusual after-hours file access' indicate?

Explanation: Access during unusual hours may indicate stolen credentials. Learn more.

Q51. Which technique would detect process hollowing?

Explanation: Process hollowing can be detected by examining memory structures. Learn more.

Q52. What does a large number of TCP SYN packets without ACKs indicate?

Explanation: Half-open connections are characteristic of SYN flood attacks. Learn more.

Q53. Which Event Log contains account lockouts?

Explanation: The Security log records authentication events including lockouts. Learn more.

Q54. What does unexpected PowerShell in TEMP directories indicate?

Explanation: Attackers often use PowerShell for fileless attacks in temp folders. Learn more.

Q55. What does 'RDP connections followed by unusual process execution' indicate?

Explanation: This pattern suggests an attacker moving through the network. Learn more.

Q56. Which technique would detect credential dumping?

Explanation: Credential dumping often involves accessing LSASS process memory. Learn more.

Q57. What would multiple SYN packets to sequential ports indicate?

Explanation: Port scans typically involve systematic connection attempts. Learn more.

Q58. What is the PRIMARY purpose of threat hunting?

Explanation: Threat hunting involves actively searching for undetected threats. Learn more.

Q59. Which log file on a Linux system typically records user login sessions?

Explanation: /var/log/wtmp maintains a history of all login and logout activities. It is a binary file accessed with the 'last' command. Learn more.

Q60. A SIEM rule triggers only when a failed VPN login is followed by a successful login from a new country. What capability is being used?

Explanation: Correlation combines multiple events into a higher-confidence alert that a single log entry might not justify. Learn more.

Q61. Which analytics approach flags activity that differs from a user or host baseline?

Explanation: User and entity behavior analytics compares observed activity with baselines to identify anomalies. Learn more.

Q62. What is the purpose of baselining normal network traffic?

Explanation: A baseline helps analysts distinguish expected behavior from unusual spikes, destinations, protocols, or timing. Learn more.

Q63. Which log field is most useful for connecting separate web requests to the same authenticated user?

Explanation: User and session identifiers help analysts correlate related activity across requests and systems. Learn more.

Q64. Which control helps detect unauthorized changes to critical system files?

Explanation: File integrity monitoring alerts when important files change unexpectedly. Learn more.

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