CompTIA Security+ Practice Questions: Architecture & Design

35 free, exam-style CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) practice questions covering Architecture & Design. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. What is the PRIMARY purpose of RAID 1?

Explanation: RAID 1 provides fault tolerance by maintaining an exact copy (mirror) of all data on two or more disks. Learn more.

Q2. Which control would BEST mitigate tailgating attacks?

Explanation: Mantraps are physical security controls that prevent unauthorized individuals from following authorized personnel into secure areas. Learn more.

Q3. What is the PRIMARY purpose of NAC (Network Access Control)?

Explanation: NAC verifies device compliance with security policies before allowing network connectivity. Learn more.

Q4. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a firewall?

Explanation: Firewalls enforce access control policies between networks by filtering traffic. Learn more.

Q5. Which control would BEST protect against DDoS attacks?

Explanation: Cloud-based DDoS protection services can absorb massive attack traffic before it reaches your infrastructure. Learn more.

Q6. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Faraday cage?

Explanation: Faraday cages block electromagnetic fields, preventing wireless signal leakage. Learn more.

Q7. What is the PRIMARY purpose of TPM (Trusted Platform Module)?

Explanation: TPM chips provide secure cryptographic operations and key storage. Learn more.

Q8. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a bastion host?

Explanation: Bastion hosts are specially hardened systems designed to withstand attacks from external networks. Learn more.

Q9. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a jump box?

Explanation: Jump servers act as intermediary access points to tightly controlled network segments. Learn more.

Q10. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an air gap?

Explanation: Air gaps provide maximum security by eliminating network connections to protected systems. Learn more.

Q11. Which control would BEST protect against shoulder surfing?

Explanation: Privacy screens limit viewing angles to prevent visual information theft. Learn more.

Q12. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Faraday bag?

Explanation: Faraday bags block all radio signals to/from contained devices. Learn more.

Q13. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a proxy server?

Explanation: Proxies act as intermediaries that filter and forward client requests. Learn more.

Q14. Which control would BEST protect against tailgating?

Explanation: Mantraps physically prevent unauthorized personnel from following authorized individuals. Learn more.

Q15. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a VPN concentrator?

Explanation: VPN concentrators handle large numbers of simultaneous secure remote connections. Learn more.

Q16. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a next-generation firewall?

Explanation: NGFWs add application awareness and control to traditional firewall functions. Learn more.

Q17. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

Explanation: DMZs provide a semi-protected zone between internal networks and the internet. Learn more.

Q18. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a web application firewall?

Explanation: WAFs specifically protect web apps by filtering malicious HTTP traffic. Learn more.

Q19. Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing defense in depth as a security strategy?

Explanation: Defense in depth (or layered security) involves implementing multiple, overlapping security controls. The idea is that if one layer is breached, subsequent layers will provide additional protection, slowing down or stopping an attacker. Learn more.

Q20. Which security concept involves verifying a user's identity before granting access to resources, and then continuously monitoring their activity?

Explanation: Zero Trust is a security model based on the principle of 'never trust, always verify.' It requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources, regardless of whether they are inside or outside the network perimeter, and continuously validates trust. Learn more.

Q21. What is the primary purpose of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) compared to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Explanation: The key difference is that an IDS monitors traffic and alerts on potential threats, whereas an IPS is placed inline and can take active measures to block or prevent detected threats from reaching their target. Learn more.

Q22. Which of the following is a common vulnerability associated with improperly configured S3 buckets in cloud environments?

Explanation: Misconfigured permissions on cloud storage services like Amazon S3 buckets can inadvertently make sensitive data publicly accessible, leading to data breaches. Proper access control and regular audits are crucial. Learn more.

Q23. Which of the following is a security concern specifically related to the Internet of Things (IoT) devices?

Explanation: Many IoT devices ship with default credentials that are widely known or have hardcoded credentials that cannot be changed. They also often lack robust mechanisms for firmware updates, making them vulnerable to exploitation. Learn more.

Q24. Which security solution acts as an intermediary between on-premises infrastructure and cloud applications to enforce security policies?

Explanation: A CASB sits between users and cloud applications to monitor activity and enforce security policies like data loss prevention and access control. Learn more.

Q25. Which mobile security strategy involves separating corporate data from personal data on a BYOD device?

Explanation: Containerization creates a secure, encrypted area on a personal device for business apps and data, isolating it from personal content. Learn more.

Q26. Which data center design feature optimizes cooling by managing airflow to prevent the mixing of cool intake air and hot exhaust air?

Explanation: Hot and cold aisle containment arranges server racks so that cool air intakes face each other (cold aisle) and hot air exhausts face each other (hot aisle) to improve cooling efficiency. Learn more.

Q27. What is the term for a hardware-based root of trust that ensures a system boots using only software that is trusted by the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)?

Explanation: Secure Boot is a feature of UEFI that prevents 'unauthorized' operating systems and software from loading during the startup process. Learn more.

Q28. Which security architecture model converges networking and security as a service capabilities (like CASB, FWaaS, and ZTNA) into a unified cloud-native service?

Explanation: SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) combines wide area networking (WAN) with comprehensive security functions (SWG, CASB, FWaaS, ZTNA) to support dynamic, secure access needs. Learn more.

Q29. Which application security testing method analyzes source code for vulnerabilities without executing the program?

Explanation: SAST (Static Application Security Testing) analyzes source code, byte code, or binaries for security vulnerabilities while the application is in a non-running state (white-box testing). Learn more.

Q30. What computing model processes data near the source of data generation (e.g., IoT sensors) rather than in a centralized cloud, to reduce latency?

Explanation: Edge computing brings computation and data storage closer to the location where it is needed (the 'edge' of the network), improving response times and saving bandwidth. Learn more.

Q31. Which security architecture places public-facing servers between external and internal firewalls?

Explanation: A demilitarized zone hosts externally reachable services while separating them from the internal network. Learn more.

Q32. Which security model requires verification regardless of network location?

Explanation: Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust based on location and requires continuous verification and least privilege. Learn more.

Q33. Which cloud model gives the customer the most responsibility for operating system security?

Explanation: In IaaS, the customer typically manages operating systems, applications, identities, and data controls. Learn more.

Q34. Which security principle assumes breach and limits lateral movement through segmentation and verification?

Explanation: Zero Trust assumes compromise is possible and applies segmentation, verification, and least privilege. Learn more.

Q35. Which cloud security issue occurs when a storage bucket allows public read access unintentionally?

Explanation: Cloud misconfigurations such as public storage exposure are common causes of data leakage. Learn more.

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