CompTIA Security+ Practice Questions: Governance, Risk & Compliance

28 free, exam-style CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) practice questions covering Governance, Risk & Compliance. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. Which document outlines rules for acceptable use of company resources?

Explanation: The Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines proper and improper use of organizational IT resources. Learn more.

Q2. Which principle ensures users have only the access needed for their job?

Explanation: The principle of least privilege restricts users to the minimum access necessary for their role. Learn more.

Q3. Which regulation protects healthcare information in the US?

Explanation: HIPAA establishes national standards for protecting sensitive patient health information. Learn more.

Q4. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Explanation: A BIA helps organizations understand which systems are most critical and their recovery requirements. Learn more.

Q5. Which principle ensures no single person controls all critical functions?

Explanation: Separation of duties divides responsibilities to prevent fraud or abuse of privileges. Learn more.

Q6. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk assessment?

Explanation: Risk assessments identify threats and vulnerabilities to prioritize mitigation efforts. Learn more.

Q7. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a data retention policy?

Explanation: Retention policies specify storage durations based on legal and operational requirements. Learn more.

Q8. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a non-disclosure agreement (NDA)?

Explanation: NDAs legally bind parties to maintain confidentiality of sensitive information. Learn more.

Q9. Which regulation governs credit card data security?

Explanation: PCI DSS establishes security standards for organizations handling credit card information. Learn more.

Q10. What is the PRIMARY purpose of PII (Personally Identifiable Information) protection?

Explanation: PII protections prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive personal data. Learn more.

Q11. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a security awareness program?

Explanation: Awareness programs train employees to recognize and avoid security risks. Learn more.

Q12. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a security policy?

Explanation: Security policies establish formal rules for protecting organizational assets. Learn more.

Q13. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a security baseline?

Explanation: Baselines define secure starting configurations for systems and software. Learn more.

Q14. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a data classification policy?

Explanation: Classification policies determine appropriate handling based on data sensitivity. Learn more.

Q15. What is the PRIMARY purpose of change management?

Explanation: Change management ensures proper review and approval of system modifications. Learn more.

Q16. Which of the following BEST describes the concept of 'confidentiality' in the CIA triad?

Explanation: Confidentiality is the C in the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) and refers to protecting information from unauthorized access or disclosure. Encryption is a primary control for ensuring confidentiality. Learn more.

Q17. What is the primary goal of performing a security audit?

Explanation: A security audit is a systematic, independent evaluation of an organization's security posture, policies, procedures, and controls against established criteria or standards (e.g., ISO 27001, NIST CSF). Learn more.

Q18. What is the process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing risks to an organization called?

Explanation: A risk assessment involves identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities, determining the likelihood and impact of these risks, and then prioritizing them for mitigation or acceptance. Learn more.

Q19. Which software development practice involves integrating security testing early and throughout the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

Explanation: 'Shifting Left' moves security testing to the earlier stages of development (the left side of the timeline) to find and fix vulnerabilities sooner. Learn more.

Q20. Which concept refers to the legal requirement that data collected on citizens must be stored and processed within the physical borders of the country where the citizen resides?

Explanation: Data sovereignty is the concept that digital data is subject to the laws of the country in which it is located, often requiring data to remain within national borders. Learn more.

Q21. Which privacy regulation grants European Union citizens the 'right to be forgotten' (erasure of personal data)?

Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is an EU regulation that includes the right to erasure, allowing individuals to request the deletion of their personal data. Learn more.

Q22. Which control category describes security measures like security guards, fences, and lighting?

Explanation: Physical controls are measures taken to prevent physical access or harm to facilities and IT systems, such as locks, guards, and cameras. Learn more.

Q23. Which risk response transfers financial impact to a third party?

Explanation: Insurance is a common risk transference method because it shifts some financial impact to another party. Learn more.

Q24. Which document defines expected uptime and support responsibilities for a vendor service?

Explanation: A service level agreement defines measurable service expectations such as uptime, response, and support targets. Learn more.

Q25. Which activity helps employees practice incident response roles without disrupting production systems?

Explanation: Tabletop exercises walk teams through scenarios to validate roles, communication, and decisions. Learn more.

Q26. Which concept separates duties so no single person can complete a sensitive process alone?

Explanation: Separation of duties reduces fraud and error by splitting responsibilities across multiple people. Learn more.

Q27. Which document tells users what they may and may not do with company systems?

Explanation: An acceptable use policy defines permitted and prohibited use of organizational systems. Learn more.

Q28. Which risk treatment accepts the risk because mitigation cost exceeds expected loss?

Explanation: Risk acceptance is a deliberate decision to tolerate risk when justified by business analysis. Learn more.

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